[Jan-2026] AAPC-CPC Certification with Actual Questions from TestPassed
Updated AAPC-CPC Dumps PDF - AAPC-CPC Real Valid Brain Dumps With 152 Questions!
NEW QUESTION # 75
A patient is having difficulties breast-feeding and receives a lactation consultation by a certified lactation consultant under the general supervision of a mid-level practitioner. How should this service be reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
CPT 98960 is used by nonphysician healthcare professionals who provide education to patients that enable them to self-manage established conditions. CPT 99078 could also be used to report lactation services, but these are specifically rendered in a group setting. CPT 98966 is used for healthcare management via the telephone, and CPT 99211 is not considered the most appropriate descriptor for services rendered in this instance.
NEW QUESTION # 76
A patient undergoes surgery with anesthesia and is arousable with painful stimulation. What is the level of sedation the patient MOST likely received?
- A. Moderate sedation
- B. Minimal sedation
- C. Deep sedation
- D. General anesthesia
Answer: C
Explanation:
Minimal, moderate, and deep sedation all allow the patient to undergo a procedure without pain and without being completely unconscious. If a patient receives minimal sedation, they are responsive after receiving verbal stimulation. Moderate sedation causes a patient to respond only after tactile stimulation. General anesthesia causes the patient to be completely unarousable, even with painful stimulation.
NEW QUESTION # 77
If a cardiologist bills an electrocardiogram (93010) in the emergency department and then follows up with the patient a week later for arteriosclerosis, he should bill an established patient E/M.
- A. True
- B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
The statement is false. According to CPT, a new patient is one who has "not received professional services from the physician." In lieu of this, because the cardiologist only interpreted an electrocardiogram and did not actually provide care to the patient, a new patient E/M service should be billed.
NEW QUESTION # 78
Code the following procedure note:
A 45-year-old female was referred for a urodynamics study due to complaints of bladder pain and weak urination. The provider places a rectal catheter simultaneously with a urethral catheter and begins to fill the bladder with water.
Using calibrated equipment, cytometry was done with a medium fill rate of 40 cc/ minute. A strong desire to void occurred at 84 cc. and the patient is instructed to void. The provider determines that the maximum urinary flow rate is 12 cc per second with a voiding time of 45 seconds and a voided volume of 102 cc. She voided with a sustained detrusor pressure. An abdominal pressure measurement was also taken, indicating no urinary leaking with abdominal straining. EMG patches were placed on the anal sphincter and found to be elevated with increased intra- abdominal pressure. All catheters and EMG patches were removed, and the procedure was completed without complications. A report will be forwarded to the referring provider, who will provide the interpretation of the results to the patient.
- A. 51726-TC, 51784-59-TC, 51797-59-TC, 51741-59-TC
- B. 51726-TC, 51784-51-TC, 51797-51-TC
- C. 51728-TC, 51784-TC, 51797-TC, 51741-TC
- D. 51728-TC, 51784-TC, 51797-TC
Answer: C
Explanation:
A urodynamics study is a diagnostic test to evaluate the function of the bladder. When performed using calibrated equipment, it becomes known as a complex cystometrogram (51726-
51729). In CPT code 51728, a complex cystometrogram is performed in conjunction with voiding pressure studies. In the provider's documentation, the bladder is filled with water, and voiding times and volume are recorded, thus fulfilling the requirements for this code. CPT code 51726 in answers A and B only describe a complex cystometrogram without the voiding pressure studies.
Electromyography (EMG) studies were performed without a needle to evaluate pelvic floor activity and are represented by 51784. An intraabdominal voiding pressure study (51797) can be inferred in that the provider had earlier inserted a rectal catheter and, after instructing the patient to cough, obtained an abdominal pressure measurement. A complex urinary flow study (51741) was performed in obtaining the maximum urinary flow rate through calibrated equipment. This procedure is missing in answers B and C. Modifier TC (indicating only a technical component) is amended on all the procedures because the provider is not interpreting the results to the patient.
Modifiers 51 and/or 59 is not amended on any procedure (A and B) because these are routinely billed together.
NEW QUESTION # 79
Code the excision of a large goiter extending into the chest cavity using a transthoracic approach.
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
A goiter is an abnormal enlargement of the thyroid gland. The removal of that gland is a thyroidectomy, represented by CPT codes 60240-60271. CPT 60270 is selected based on the approach used. CPT codes 21602 and 32900 are obtained by using the coding crosswalk for resection ofthe chest wall and describe the removal of a tumor and one or more ribs. CPT 32140 is a thoracotomy, which involves pulling apart the ribs to reach and remove a lung cyst.
NEW QUESTION # 80
A physician performs a thyroidectomy on a 26-year-old female patient with thyroid cancer. A radical neck dissection with a partial parathyroidectomy and autotransplantation of two parathyroid glands is also completed in the same session. W'hat CPT code(s) should the physician report?
- A. 60254, 60512-52
- B. 60254, 60500-51, 60512-51
- C. 0
- D. 60254, 60500-51, 60512
Answer: A
Explanation:
The CPT code for a thyroidectomy with a radical neck dissection is 60254 and sequenced first because it is the primary procedure with the highest RVU. CPT 60500, which describes a parathyroidectomy, is bundled into a thyroidectomy. Therefore, the two procedures should never be reported together. Parathyroid autotransplantation (CPT 60512) involves the removal of all four parathyroid glands. If not all four glands are removed, report the code with modifier 52 to indicate reduced services. As this is an add-on code, do not append modifier 51.
NEW QUESTION # 81
CPT code 11102 is a column 2 code that has an NCCI edit of 1 when paired with CPT code 11402. How would this be interpreted?
- A. If being billed together, only report one unit of each.
- B. The two codes can be billed together with an appropriate modifier.
- C. The two codes are inclusive of each other and can never be billed together.
- D. The two codes are exclusive of each other and can never be billed together.
Answer: B
Explanation:
NCCI stands for National Correct Coding Initiative and was created by CMS to prevent unbundling and prevent incorrect payments. Column one represents a correct code when listed next to column two. There are three edits listed with the combination of the two columns: 0, 1, and
9. Edit 0 means that the two codes should never, under any circumstance, be reported together. Edit
1 means that the procedures may be coded together with the use of a modifier. Edit 9 means that the edit does nota I .
NEW QUESTION # 82
Which procedure uses a thin tube to examine the abdominal organs through a small incision in the belly?
- A. Gastroscopy
- B. Endoscopy
- C. Laparoscopy
- D. Laparotomy
Answer: C
Explanation:
A gastroscopy is a procedure that uses an endoscope to examine the stomach and some parts of the intestinal tract An endoscopy uses a thin tube through a natural opening in the body to examine the digestive tract. A laparotomy is a large incision in the belly to gain access into the abdominal cavity.
NEW QUESTION # 83
Which healthcare professional may NOT report medical nutrition therapy?
- A. Endocrinologist
- B. Dietician
- C. Nutritionist
- D. Registered nurse
Answer: A
Explanation:
Medical nutrition therapy describes nutritional assessments and interventions in a face-to- face or group patient setting and is reported with CPT codes 97802-97804. These codes are used by nonphysician healthcare professionals only. When a physician provides nutritional advice, a preventative service or evaluation and management code should be reported.
NEW QUESTION # 84
It is appropriate to use a HCPCS Level II G code, as opposed to a CPT code, to report a screening service performed on an asymptomatic patient.
- A. True
- B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
The statement is true. G codes apply to various healthcare screenings. If a patient is experiencing any symptoms that initiate the encounter, it then becomes diagnostic, and an appropriate CPT code would be selected instead.
NEW QUESTION # 85
A 22-year-old patient presents with a 5.5 cm gaping laceration on the right forearm and a
2 cm superficial laceration on the right wrist caused by a table saw. A local anesthetic is injected around both laceration sites. The physician irrigates the laceration on the wrist before closing the wound with a tissue adhesive and then performs an extensive cleaning and single-layer closure with sutures on the forearm. What should be coded for this encounter?
- A. 12032, 12001-59, S41.111A S61.411A W31.2XXA
- B. 12032, 97597, G0168, S41.111A, S61.411A W31.2XXA
- C. 12001, 12032-59, S61.411AS41.111A W31.2XXA
- D. 12032, S41.111A, S61.411A,W31.2kX.A
Answer: A
Explanation:
A "gaping" injury and/or "single-layer closure" is indicative of an intermediate repair and a
"superficial" injury and/or use of a "tissue adhesive" is indicative ofa simple repair. Because the repairs are not in the same classification, each repair is reported in a single code, sequenced from the most to the least severe (eliminating answers B and D), with modifier 59 appended to the less complicated procedure(s). Local anesthesia is included in these procedures, as is debridement unless the provider specifically indicates that it is extensive. In answer A, an HCPC's code for tissue adhesive would be reported only if the patient had Medicare.
NEW QUESTION # 86
A patient presents to urgent care with complaints of a sore throat, a temperature of 100.2, and pain while urinating. The provider examines the patient and collects a throat swab and urine sample. The following codes are then entered on the patient's claim: R30.9, R07.O, R50.9, N39.O, J03.8, and B95.3. What code(s) should be removed?
- A. R30.9, J02.9
- B. R30.9, 102.9 and R50.9
- C. 395.3
- D. N39.O, 103.00
Answer: B
Explanation:
Pain while urinating 830.9) is a symptom of a urinary tract infection (N39.O), and a sore throat (R07.0) and fever 850.9) are symptoms of acute tonsillitis caused by Streptococcus (103.00).
Neither ofthese three codes should be reported because ICD-IO-CM guidelines stipulate that when a definitive diagnosis is present, signs and/or symptoms should not be additionally listed on the claim.
NEW QUESTION # 87
The laboratory collected blood to test the patient's carbon dioxide, chloride, potassium, sodium, and glucose levels. Select the CPT codes that the laboratory will report.
- A. 80051, 82947-59
- B. 80051, 82947
- C. 80053-52
- D. 80051, 80053
Answer: B
Explanation:
It would not be appropriate to add modifier 52 to 80053 in answer A In answer C, 80051 and
80053 would not be reported together because CPT guidelines state that "when or more panel codes include the same tests, report the panel with the highest number of tests in common." Because the glucose test is not included in 80051, 82947 would be added to 80051, with no modifier 59, because the procedures are routinely billed together, thus eliminating answer D.
NEW QUESTION # 88
A patient develops an infection within the global period of a knee replacement. It is determined that the infection originated from the incision site and needs to be surgically removed. Which modifier should be appended to the secondary surgery?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
Modifier 78 represents an additional, unplanned surgery during the global period for a complication arising for the initial procedure. In this case, the complication would be the infection.
Modifier 58 is generally used when a secondary procedure is planned prior to or during the time of the initial procedure. Modifier 79 is used to indicate two unrelated procedures. Modifier 25 is for use on E/M codes only.
NEW QUESTION # 89
Which of the four chambers in the heart receives deoxygenated blood from the body through the vena cava?
- A. Right ventricle
- B. Right atrium
- C. Left atrium
- D. Left ventricle
Answer: B
Explanation:
After receiving deoxygenated blood from the body through the vena cava, the right atrium pumps blood into the right ventricle. The right ventricle sends the blood to the lungs to be oxygenated. The left atrium receives blood from the lungs through the pulmonary veins and pumps it into the left ventricle via the mitral valve. The left ventricle then distributes oxygenated blood to tissues throughout the body.
NEW QUESTION # 90
A mammogram is done on a patient who has a lump on her right breast at 4 0'clock and a lump in her left breast at 6 0'clock. What CPT and ICD-IO-CM code(s) should be reported?
- A. 77067, D49.3
- B. 77065-50, N63.13, N63.20
- C. 77066, N63.14, N63.25
- D. 77067, D48.61, D48.62
Answer: C
Explanation:
CPT code 77067 is a screening mammogram. In this case, the mammogram would be diagnostic because the purpose is to rule out and/or make a diagnosis based on physical exam findings. Code 77065-50 is an inappropriate use of the modifier because there exists a bilateral procedure code. A breast lump should only be coded to "mass" and not as a neoplasm unless specifically stated in the diagnosis. When deciphering the location of the mass, 12 0'clock is at the top of each breast, and the point of movement is clockwise. Therefore, 4 0'clock in the right breast is equivalent to the lower-inner quadrant, and 6 0'clock in the left breast is in the middle ofthe t".vo lower quadrants.
NEW QUESTION # 91
A physician provides a GIPO 39-weeks twin gestational patient with antepartum care, delivery, and postpartum care. Baby A was delivered vaginally without complications, and Baby B was delivered by Cesarean due to fetal tachycardi a. Assign the correct ICD-IO-CM and CPT codes.
- A. 59410, Z37.2 and 59510-51, 076, Z37.2
- B. 59409, Z3A.39, Z37.o and 59510-51, 076, Z3A39, Z37.o
- C. 59400, Z37.o and 59510-51, 036.8332, Z37.o
- D. 59510, 076, Z3A39, Z37.o and 59409-51, Z3A39, Z37.o
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Cesarean delivery (59510) would be sequenced first because this code has the highest RVU and would include the antepartum and postpartum care. The vaginal delivery by itself (59409), without antepartum and postpartum care, would be reported secondary because the charges for the antepartum and postpartum care of the mother have already been included in the Cesarean delivery code.
NEW QUESTION # 92
A patient tests positive for coronavirus (SARS-CoV-2) and bronchitis after presenting with a cough. What diagnosis code(s) should be reported?
- A. U07.1,J40, Z20.828
- B. U07.1,J40
- C. J40,B97.29, Z20.828
- D. 140, 897.29, R05.9
Answer: B
Explanation:
The underlying condition should always be first listed, which in this case would be the SARS- COV-2 infection (U07.1). The description of the code then prompts the biller to list the manifestations, which would be the unspecified bronchitis 040). In answer A. cough would not be coded as a symptom because the patients illness is confirmed. Answers C and D, which include a suspected exposure code, can also be eliminated because this code is used only when the existence ofthe illness in the patient is unknown or negative.
NEW QUESTION # 93
A patient opts to replace his semi-rigid penile prosthesis with a multicomponent, inflatable penile prosthesis. What CPT code(s) should the urologist report if this was completed in one encounter?
- A. 54415, 54405-51
- B. 0
- C. 1
- D. 54405, 54415-51
Answer: C
Explanation:
Penile prosthesis procedure codes are based on the type of prosthesis being used. In this scenario, a semi-rigid prosthesis is being replaced by a multicomponent inflatable one. Currently, there are no CPT codes that encompass the removal of one type of prosthesis and insertion of another type. The most common course of action might be to code the removal and insertion separately and amend a multi-procedural modifier on the secondary code. However, CPT 54415 indicates that the prosthesis removed was not replaced by another, which is an inaccurate description of services rendered. In this case, only the insertion (CPT 54405) should be reported because it has the highest RVU value.
NEW QUESTION # 94
A surgeon performs a craniectomy to excise a meningioma located above the tentorium cerebelli. During the procedure, an extradural hematoma is noted and removed via the same craniectomy site. How should the surgeon report the procedure?
- A. 61512, 61312-59
- B. 61312-22
- C. 0
- D. 61519, 61314-51
Answer: C
Explanation:
Surgical procedures on the nervous system are identified by where inside the skull they occur. A meningioma is being excised from above the tentorium cerebelli, otherwise known as supratentorial (CPT 61512). The removal of an extradural hematoma is inclusive to the primary craniectomy code because the finding is incidental and the same surgical site is used for its removal.
If the surgeon had to create a separate incision to access the extradural hematoma, that excision could be reported separately with modifier 59.
NEW QUESTION # 95
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